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imtu_174
Starting Member
9 Posts |
 Posted - 2005-09-12 : 15:16:05
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| HiI have a schema XXX. This schema owns a set of tables say XXX.A, XXX.B and XXX.C.I have a login XXX mapped to the user XXX.When I connect to the SQL Server using login XXX and execute the query. Select * from A, it throws be an error saying that"Invalid Object Name A".Now when I modify the select statement specifying the schema it works. i.e. Select * from XXX.AIn the former case, is it not that SQL Server tries to search for the table in the current user's account and then if it not available it look's in the dbo's account.HOw can I make a select without specifying the schema ?I am using SQL Server 2005.Thanks & RegardsImtiaz |
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TG
Master Smack Fu Yak Hacker
6065 Posts |
Posted - 2005-09-12 : 22:08:49
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hmmm, sounds fishy. XXX should not need to qualify the table name (with the owner name) when selecting from their own table. While logged in as XXX, run the following code to confirm your table is owned by XXX and that the table ownerid is the same as the logged in userid (myUserID should be the same as tableOwnerID)select user_id() myUserID ,objectproperty(object_id('XXX.A'), 'ownerid') tableOwnerIDBe One with the OptimizerTG |
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SQL Select - For schema defined tables