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Robwhittaker
Yak Posting Veteran
85 Posts |
 Posted - 2004-04-26 : 08:27:11
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| Hi all.We have SQL Server 2000 with SP 3a installed. I've noticed that if a stored Procedure is created in a database, which calls another SP or queries a table that the user running the SP needs the correct accesses on the other SP or table respectively.I thought the whole point of stored procedures was that you can have users who only have access to the SP and can't run their own queries because they don't have access to the underlying tables.Am I being stupid? Has anybody else experienced this?ThanksRob |
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RickD
Slow But Sure Yak Herding Master
3608 Posts |
Posted - 2004-04-26 : 08:40:10
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| This is the case for views, not SP's... |
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derrickleggett
Pointy Haired Yak DBA
4184 Posts |
Posted - 2004-04-26 : 09:58:16
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| It's only true for SPs if they access cross-database. You will notice that the stored procedures you have problems with access tables in other databases. Like Rick said, you can get around this with views or setting up stored procedures in the other database and calling those.MeanOldDBAderrickleggett@hotmail.comWhen life gives you a lemon, fire the DBA. |
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stored procedures and security